< Return to Top 20 Judeo-Christian Myths

Judeo-Christian Myth #1: Redemption is available for all peoples.

Most Christians have no idea of what the promise of Redemption is. They often assume it has something to do with Salvation, and since Salvation is available to all, then Redemption must be available to all.

The definition of "Redemption," according to the American Heritage Dictionary:

• The act of redeeming or the condition of having been redeemed.
• Recovery of something pawned or mortgaged.
• The payment of an obligation, as a government's payment of the value of its bonds.
• Deliverance upon payment of ransom; rescue.
• Christianity Salvation from sin through Jesus's sacrifice.

In order to redeem something, it must first have been purchased. One cannot redeem something which was not purchased. Ask yourself these questions:

Question: Who was to be purchased?

Answer: The Covenant people: Israel.

Scripture alone quicky establishes who was purchased:

Remember thy congregation, which thou hast purchased of old; the rod of thine inheritance, which thou hast redeemed; this mount Zion, wherein thou hast dwelt. (Psalms 74:2)

But made his own people to go forth like sheep, and guided them in the wilderness like a flock. And he led them on safely, so that they feared not: but the sea overwhelmed their enemies. And he brought them to the border of his sanctuary, even to this mountain, which his right hand had purchased . He cast out the heathen also before them, and divided them an inheritance by line, and made the tribes of Israel to dwell in their tents. (Psalms 78:53-55)

Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory. (Ephesians 1:14)

The context of this last passage is the assurance by Paul to the saints in Ephesus (who where "chosen") that their adoption and inheritance, as well as their their salvation is in Jesus. Only Israel are the adopted (Romans 9:3.4) The inheritance was applied to Abraham (Hebrews 11:8) and given, because of Abraham's faith, to his seed ( Gen 21:12, Romans 9:7, Galations 3:16, Hebrews 11:18) The inheritance was applicable to Israel alone (Jeremiah 51:19, Jeremiah 3:18, Isaiah 64:9, Isaiah 63:17 and many, many more.)

Let's look at Hebrews 9:15:

And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance .

To what people was the Mosaic Law Covenant given on Mt. Sinai? Who were under the law, that they should transgress under the old covenant? Israel, and Israel alone. Here's something else to think about. The redemption of Israel is tied to their inheritance. So, if Israel has not been redeemed, they do not have their inheritance!

Question: Who's debt was to be payed?

Answer: The Covenant people: Israel.

In Romans 4:4, the apostle Paul associated debt with the working of the law (which, later in Romans 8:2, he associated with death.) rather than grace through faith. However, Paul is talking to Israelites (Romans 4:1.) Only one people had been led out of Egypt, and only one people were a "chosen race."

It was Israel that owed the debt, because it was Israel that agreed to the terms of the Mosiac Law Covenant (Exodus 24:3.) No other people were given the law (Romans 9:3,4)

Question: Who was to be delivered or rescued?

Answer: The Covenant people: Israel.

The prophets foretold of a time when the two houses of Israel was to be restored.

The House of Israel, which had been cast among the gentiles, had become "not a people" (Hosea 1:9, 1 Peter 2:10.) The House of Judah also played the harlot (Amos 7:17, Isaiah 1:21, Isaiah 23:16, Jeremiah 2:20, Micah 1:7-9.) Both houses - a huge number of people - were to be restored, and once again be called the "sons of the Living God. (Hosea 1:10,11)"

Question: Who had an obligation - and for what reason?

Answer: The Covenant people: Israel.

Israel was the wife of Yahweh (Isaiah 54:3, Jeremiah 3:20, Jeremiah 31:32, Revelation 21:2 .) Yahweh has not known the other peoples (Psalms 147:20.) It was the House of Judah that had killed the saints and the martyrs (Daniel 9) and the House of Israel that had committed whoredom (Hosea 2:5) No other people in the Bible committed adultery against the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob but the seed of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob!

Judah was the treacherous sister that was carried into Babylon. Their racial kinsmen, the House of Israel, were carried into captivity by the Assyrians. These Israelites were divorced by Yahweh, but were to be restored and reunited (Hosea 1, Jeremiah 31.)

The focus of debt and obligation to God was specific to his bride: Israel, who had committed adultery by worshipping other gods. Yahweh was never married to any people other than the remnant of His Covenant people: Israel. For Him to be married to other peoples as well is logically tantamount to bigomy!

Question: What had been lost which must be recovered?

Answer: The Covenant people: Israel.

The House of Israel had been divorced by Yahweh and scattered among the nations (Hosea 1, James 1:1) The House of Judah, which had committed adultery, was to face the Wrath of their God (Daniel 9, Daniel 12) with a punishment prescribed by the law: burning (Joel 2:3, , 2 Peter 2:12, Isaiah 48:10.)

Israel is a scattered sheep ; the lions have driven him away: first the king of Assyria hath devoured him; and last this Nebuchadrezzar king of Babylon hath broken his bones. (Jeremiah 50:17)

Yet, after all this, Yahweh promised they would be recovered (Hosea 2:23, Jeremiah 30:3, Jeremiah 31:31-34) in the latter days (Hosea 3:5.) He would end their captivity (Jeremiah 33:24.) It was the lost sheep - the Israelites - that Jesus was sent for (Matthew 15:24.) Did you know that Israel alone is referred to as "sheep" in the Word of God?

---------------------------------------------

In the King James, the first occurence of the word "redeemed" appears in 1 Chronicles 17:

And what one nation in the earth is like thy people Israel, whom God went to redeem to be his own people, to make thee a name of greatness and terribleness, by driving out nations from before thy people whom thou hast redeemed out of Egypt?

The last use of the word is found when John the Revelator associated redemption with the 144,000; the remnant of Israel, who were the bride and the firstfruits (Revelation 14:3,4)

We have shown that the lost people with the oblgation to whom the debt, the purchase, the deliverance and the bridal language applied was Israel alone. After all these evidences, what exegetical license do we have to apply the Redemption to any people than the Covenant people, Israel?

In thier confusion, today's mainstream Christians sing two songs: "Look up! Your Redemption draweth nigh!" at the same time they sing: "I've been redeemed!" Which is it?

Indeed, one will never find - anywhere - in the Inspired Word where Redemption is applicable to any other people than His Covenant people. Christian leaders: stop teaching false doctrine! As there is One Redeemer, there is one people that is to be redeemed, because only one people had been purchased by Him and married to Him.

The prophets prophesy falsely, and the priests bear rule by their means; and my people love to have it so: and what will ye do in the end thereof? (Jeremiah 5:31.)

< Return to Top 20 Judeo-Christian Myths